Subject: Re: Western world tunning?
From: Arne Eigenfeldt (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Fri Jun 18 2004 - 13:19:58 EDT
Wow. A complicated topic. I'd suggest starting here:
On Jun 18, 2004, at 10:14 AM, Jay Smalridge wrote:
> Somebody recently asked me why the western world divides up our octave
> into twelve portions? I began to research on the web only to find
> that the majority of files basically said "Its just because it is" or
> they over estimated my vocabulary skills (mesuring the interval in
> I was wondering if anyone could tell me, or point me in the right
> direction of information:
> -why it is divided into 12 semitones,
> -why it is based on 440Hz tunning,
> -why is there no E# nor B#...
> -why do different parts of the world have more intervals in an
> I figure that these are answers anyone interested in sound should
> know(I am frankly kind of embarassed that I don't).
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