Subject: Re: the origin of music?
From: I. Sterling (yitzchok@u.washington.edu)
Date: Thu Jan 11 2001 - 18:30:26 EST
Hi John.
On Thu, 11 Jan 2001, John Croft wrote:
> 50 000 year old flutes are neither surprising nor evidence of any hardwired
> specialisation, since they date from well after the biological evolution of
> humans ceased, and well after the development of language (the most recent
> big evolutionary step),
according to purely anatomical evidence; the exact emergence of language
in homo sapiens is a point of contention. We just hosted an entertaining
and lively debate between Derek Bickerton and Terrence Deacon regarding
the evolution of language. Let me add that I find Bickerton's hypothesis
peculiar (you can read his books if you are so disposed). Bickerton also
recently co-wrote a book with William Calvin (here at the UW) on the
evolution of language, for those who are interested. I question some of
their claims.
> upon which much of musical ability is parasitic.
This looks like pure conjecture. I concede that it is true (for
example) that occurence of amusia commonly coincides with aphasia,
suggesting some correspondence between musical and lingusitic
abilities. However, I'm not aware of any evidence that conclusively
demonstrates that musical ability presupposes linguistic ability. If you
are, please enlighten me.
always a pleasure to tangle with you John.
Isaac
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